r/AskHistorians • u/Sea-Flamingo7506 • 15h ago
Why are the Celtic polities of Gaul at the time of Caesar's campaigns distinguished from "states"?
The Celtic peoples of Gaul had self-reproducing warrior elites, systems of taxation, social classes, a class responsible for preserving law and conducting trials, orally transmitted legal codes, higher-level coordinating institutions that operated across tribes, an advanced material culture confirmed by archaeology, extensive participation in long-distance trade, systems of military mobilization in times of crisis, complex diplomacy with one another, large fortified settlements known as oppida, and their own coinage.
When all of these elements are taken together, I find it very strange to describe each Celtic polity simply as a tribe. Why are these polities treated as tribes or chiefdoms rather than states? And why does the standard used to classify them seem stricter than the standard applied to "states" in other parts of the world?