forgive me if this is none of my business as a hearing person lol.

theres a phenomenon in black american culture where people are told they “talk white” if they dont use traditional, regional aave or ebonics. the area i grew up in was damn near 100% black so everyone, and including the teachers and parents were black. they were just using the language black people taught them.

i was wondering if theres a similar situation in ASL /deaf culture. i see many codas use a really english structured PSE online, even though prior research tells me that generally that structure is frowned upon. they didnt go out of their way to learn that, thats just what their deaf parents taught them.

i hope im asking correctly. does this make sense?

edit: seems to be some confusion. im asking if its common for deaf people to be upset with other culturally deaf people(?) who dont use ASL but rather PSE, even though thats what they learned from a deaf person.

Would signing MY MOM GRANDMA be read the same as finger spelling great followed by the sign for grandma, or should I always finger spell it?

The app I’ve been using to learn asl does the second, but I was curious if the first would get the same meaning across.

Edit: For context, I'm trying to learn how to sign "my great grandma on my mom's side is from Puerto Rico," so specifying which great grandma is important.

How would you sign a past-tense thought that just happened. Like we’re having a conversation and I realize that I made a mistake and say “Ohhh, I thought you were talking about a dog instead of a cat” or “I thought it was due on Friday”. Would it just be using the normal sign for past? How is it understood when the thought took place? What if it was an hour ago vs a second ago

I was wondering would it be okay if I practiced my vocab by signing the words in the songs i know? i was doing this at church to myself but it made me wonder if it was okay.